According to the United Nations, the term "genocide" is very clear.the systematic killing of, or a program of action intended to destroy a whole national or ethnic group." This definition very clearly describes such modern horrors as Auschwitz and Dachau, or more recent ones such as Cambodia, Bosnia, Rwanda, and Kosovo. Yet this clarity breaks down when discussing such events as the Irish potato famines of 1845 to 1849. The term "genocide" has been bandied about by many since the horrible events occurred more than 150 years ago. But do and should these events be classified as genocidal? Is this a fair description of the potato famines that ravaged Ireland more than 150 years ago?.

             First, however, the facts. Between 1841 and 1851, the population of Ireland declined from approximately 8.3 million to 6.5 million. Out of the nearly 2 million drop, it is estimated that a little over 1 million emigrated to the United States, Canada, Australia, and Great Britain during the years of the famine. They were the lucky ones, as a little under 1 million of their fellow countrymen and countrywomen perished in the last great famine ever to hit Europe. [1].

             They perished from a series of potato famines caused by the fungal infestation Phytophthora infestans which began ravaging Ireland's potato crop in September 1845. While the initial effects were quite serious [about 1/3 of the total potato crop was ruined the first season], many British officials, tempered by their stereotypes of the Irish as being lazy and backward, did not believe that the Irish were in serious threat of starvation. Sir Robert Peel, the Tory PM at the time, did organize some food relief efforts, and the British government secretly bought Indian maize [corn], to use for food relief, if need be. The food purchased was only enough for about half a million people for three months, far below the actual need. [2] Yet, the relief efforts of the Tory government, though very inadequate, proved to be much better than in subsequent years.